My understanding is that, if you deposit $100 in the bank, the bank uses that as the 20% reserve holding and can loan out $400 based on that, so a 100% results in 500%.
This rings a bell with me and I'm confused now. Can a bank really loan out more than it takes in?
No, despite what that blasted cartoon says
If a bank has £100 its vaults (or the CB's) then yes, it might have issued loans of £2000, but only if it had received deposits totaling £2100.
Having £100 in its vaults doesnt give it some special legal power to print £20 notes.
I cant open the Bank of Dominic, deposit £100, lend myself £2000, deposit that, and lend myself another £40,000.
I can open the bank of Dominic, deposit £100, lend myself £95, deposit it and so forth, but I end up with £1000 on deposit with the bank, I owe the bank £900, and the bank has £100 in a vault.
The process begins when an initial $100 deposit of central bank money is made into Bank A. Bank A then takes 20 percent of it, or $20, and sets it aside as reserves and then loans out the remaining 80 percent, or $80. At this point there is actually a total of $180 in the system, not $100; because the bank has loaned out $80 of the central bank money, kept $20 of central bank money in reserve, and substituted a newly created $80 IOU claim for the depositor that acts equivalent to and can be implicitly redeemed for central bank money (the depositor can transfer it to another account, write a check on it, etc.).
The last bit is where it falls apart, the IOU, which is what I have on deposit - what the bank has in reserve, IS NOT equivilant to central bank money nor can it be transfered to another bank or spent.
If I were to transfer my bank balance from Lloyds into Barclays, Lloyds actualy has to transfer that as Central Bank money, if it cant, because it has ran out of reserves, it defaults.